• samus12345@sh.itjust.works
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    6 days ago

    No, English is just being used as an example of being able to communicate. The first one either isn’t sapient or is unable to communicate with the person, so either way there can be no consent.

    • LordKitsuna@lemmy.world
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      6 days ago

      I was being a little facetious I’m more meant that there’s other forms of communication than verbal lol.